Phil Brown has just said that Southend sold a centre half to Fleetwood for £150,000 and they paid up front in full. He also said that they were one of the very few League Two clubs who could do this. As they have one of the smallest attendances in the division so must have one of the smallest incomes, how does that work?
Fleetwood have a wealthy backer who's willing to stump up cash for them - so I'm assuming it's coming from him. It's pretty easy to get around from my understanding, the backer could "sponsor" something at the club to generate income & then use that to fund player purchase/wages. Think Man Citys owners sponsored a corporate box for a stupid amount of millions last year?
http://www.financialfairplay.co.uk/financial-fair-play-explained.php this is a useful summary of FFP rules explained. i was previously under the impression there was some cap on salary spend. apparently not. i guess it gets bundled into 'total loss' figure. will be interesting to see how Clubs like Bolton get on - basically a maximum £8m loss, including owner capital injection all that said, i'm sure there will be loopholes all over the shop. the FA haven't showed any balls before now, no reason to believe they're about to start
So the overspend is monitored based on monthly projections - wonder if that means that investment from the owner can be considered income? League Two clubs are not allowed to make any loss at all so does that mean they could be break even and then spend £150k from investment and it would still be considered breaking even, or does it mean that it's technically a loss covered by a benefactor??
If I was a Southend fan I'd not be pleased my manager is in London hosting a radio show with season 3 days away.
