Suarez. Can someone please tell me what he has said and what evidence there is ?

I really don't know as I've not been following the case.

 

A report here suggests the word 'negro' was used. It's not clear what proof, if any, there is but why would LFC say the word negro is not offensive in Uruguay if Suarez hadn't used that word. Then again I don't think the word negro is racist. I thought the uproar was because he'd used the n****r word

http://www.guardian.co.uk/football/2011/dec/20/luis-suarez-patrice-evra-racism

It will be interesting to see what, if anything, happens to John Terry. It will be a disgrace if nothing happens to him when Suarez gets this ban and fine when it's a case of one mans word against another, when they have evidence against Terry

 

That's what i'm trying to figure out, why hasn't Terry been punished despite there being at least semi convincing evidence of using a racist remark towards Ferdinand.

 

I bet LFC will be watching the outcome of the Terry incident closely

 

http://www.telegraph.co.uk/sport/fo...-Manchester-United-defender-Patrice-Evra.html

Suárez admitted calling Evra a “Negro” once but denied it was an insult. He claimed it was in response to being called a “South American” by his opponent. Evra alleged he was racially insulted 10 times by Suárez.

 

I worked in Nigeria where the Nigerian foreman came to me and said, " What are ewe going to do with those lazy n.......s. " If Africans are using it against their fellow blacks, it is therefore a word in general parlance, and only made disrespectful by the PC brigade that seem to have taken over the country. It is after all, a derivation of the Latin word for black.

 

It's a contextual thing. A black using to a black is one thing, but a white to a black is different. Whites haven't suffered centuries of enslavement by blacks, it's entirely different.

The case here though does seem to rest entirely on one man's word against another with no other evidence. John Terry should be facing a lengthy ban.