How does that work then??... IMF French Court finds "Ms Lagarde found guilty of negligence but spared prison sentence and criminal record"!! Judge stated that we must "Taking into account the financial situation at the time!! " I bet if Joe Bloggs had made an illegal payment and found guilty would not have excaped the fine and/or the 1 year prison sentence. Are these people untouchable? Then people wonder why the populist movements are gaining ground
I hate it when they take into account how somebody has previously been perceived in public when handing down punishments. It's the same disgusting system that allowed Chris corke to continue his paedophilic ways
me and thee don't agree on much s.t. and we're not likely to be on eachothers xmas card list but its a big LIKE on that
I am no expert on French law Tekktyke. My only observations would be these. The French legal system is often described as inquisitorial, so judges oversee investigations, and the possible bringing of charges. That said, I understand that the accusations levied at Ms (Mme?) Lagarde centre around 'negligence'. In English law that would normally arise in the context of civil cases. The tort of negligence arises where a duty of care can be established, it is shown that there has been a breach of that duty of care (proved to the civil standard - i.e. on a balance of probabilities), and that the litigant has suffered loss in consequence (providing that the loss is is not too remote from the alleged cause of it). Whether the French case is along similar lines, I know not. But the point is that the French system operates in a different way to our own. The consequence in our own courts is normally the award of damages and/or costs. The reports of the French case seem to suggest that things could be escalated up to a criminal conviction, but that has not happened here. Those are my only observations - not having any great knowledge on that jurisdiction (others on here may have?)